aretziromero00 aretziromero00

11-10-2017
English

contestada

Why do "opposites" have more in common than "non-opposites"?

a.They share a continuum.
b.Non-opposites are the same thing.
c.Aristotle's doctrine of the mean states it.
d.The above statement is not valid: opposites have nothing in common with each other.

Respuesta :

TheAlbinoMosasaurus TheAlbinoMosasaurus

11-10-2017

D possibly, i'm cunfuddled.

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EmoPotatoQueen EmoPotatoQueen

11-10-2017

A. They share a continuum.

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