Consider an option on a non-dividend-paying stock when the stock price is $30, the exercise price is $29, the risk-free interest rate is 5% per annum, the volatility is 25% per annum, and the time to maturity is four months.
What is the price of the option if it is a European call?
What is the price of the option if it is an American call?
What is the price of the option if it is a European put?
Verify that put-call parity holds.

Respuesta :

a) The price of European call is $2.52

b) The price of American call is  $ 2.53

c) the price of European put is  $ 1.05

d) [tex]p+s=c+[/tex][tex]Ke^{-rt}[/tex]

as given in the question,

the case stock price is [tex]S_0[/tex]= $30

the exercise price is  K=$29

the rate of interest r = 0.05

the volatility is [tex]\sigma[/tex] = 0.25

the maturity period is T = 4/12

now ,

[tex]d_1=\frac{ln\frac{30}{29}+(0.05+\frac{0.25^2}{2} \times \frac{4}{12} }{0.25\sqrt{03333} }[/tex]

=> 0.4225

[tex]d_2=\frac{ln\frac{30}{29}+(0.05-\frac{0.25^2}{2} \times \frac{4}{12} }{0.25\sqrt{03333} }[/tex]

=> 0.2782

N(0.4225) =0.6637

N(0.2782)=0.6096

N(-0.4225)=0.3363

N(-0.2782)=03904

for calculating the European call price,

=> [tex]30\times 0.6637-29e^{(-0.05)\times\frac{4}{12} }\times 0.6096[/tex]

=> 2.52

thus European call price is $2.52

American call price will be same as the European call price i.e $2.52

The European put price is calculated as follows

=>[tex]30\times 0.6637-29e^{(-0.05)\times\frac{4}{12} }\times -0.3904-30\times 0.3363[/tex]

=>$1.05

put-call parity states that

[tex]p+s=c+Ke^{-rT}[/tex]

in this case c=2.52, [tex]S_0[/tex]=30,K=29,p=1.05 and [tex]e^{-rT}[/tex] =0.9835

so , therefore

it is easy to say that the relationship is satisfied

To learn more about non- dividend distribution:

https://brainly.com/question/29349320

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